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As a point of order....the city and the union negotiates their collective bargaining agreement. Once a tentative agreement is made the tentative agreement gets presented to the union membership for ratification. After ratification by the union the agreement is then presented by the city to the city council for their ratification.

As an aside, Ordicanxe 2-18 says CBA’s have to be presented to the council for ratification. It is silent on the reopening of these CBA’s and any subsequent “side deals” having to also be ratified by the council. Otherwise wouldn’t that also be written into the ordinance?

I’m no attorney and they know how to twist things, but if the ordinance is silent on an issue then there is no mandate correct? What is the definition of a CBA if there is no definition written into the ordinance? Is a “side deal” a CBA since it alters the terms of the original CBA?

I’m not sure.